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stephenR Veteran Member


Joined: 05 Aug 2006 Posts: 96 Location: St Helens, Lancs, England
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Posted: Sat Oct 28, 2006 5:33 am Post subject: Matthew 28:19 Aorist imperative |
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We have just been looking at the distinction between aorist and progressive imperatives, and I looked at Matt 28:19:
poreuqevnteV ou#n maqhteuvsate pavnta ta; e[qnh, baptivzonteV aujtou;V eijV to; o[noma tou: patro;V kai; tou: uiJou: kai; tou: aJgivou pneuvmatoV
Now it seems that the maqhteuvsate is an aorist imperative, which suggests that Jesus intends that the work of making disciples is something that has a finishing date to it, it is not intended to be an indefinite open-ended task.
Does that seem plausible?
Stephen
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Mr. Schwandt AGORA Administrator


Joined: 17 Jul 2002 Posts: 316
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Posted: Tue Oct 31, 2006 9:22 am Post subject: Re: Matthew 28:19 Aorist imperative |
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Not quite. The test for lexical preference is to ask whether the action completes itself in the doing. I'm not sure about this verb. The only nonindicative in the bible of this verb is in this verse.
If the author did want to imply a marked aorist aspectual meaning, the aorist meaning is typically simple, not completed. (Simple = no additional aspectual meaning)
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stephenR Veteran Member


Joined: 05 Aug 2006 Posts: 96 Location: St Helens, Lancs, England
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Posted: Fri Nov 10, 2006 1:20 pm Post subject: |
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poreuqevnteV and baptivzonteV
are these also aorist participles?
Stephen
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Klaas Contributing Member

Joined: 06 Dec 2008 Posts: 22 Location: The Netherlands
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Posted: Wed Dec 17, 2008 8:06 am Post subject: |
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| stephenR wrote: | poreuqevnteV and baptivzonteV
are these also aorist participles?
Stephen |
πορευθέντες yes, βαπτίζοντες no, as that would have been βαπτίσαντες. _________________ כח גַּם אֱוִיל מַחֲרִישׁ, חָכָם יֵחָשֵׁב
(משלי פרק יז)
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