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eternalworship New Member

Joined: 11 Feb 2008 Posts: 7
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Posted: Wed Feb 20, 2008 11:15 pm Post subject: Matthew 6:13 |
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And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, forever. Amen.(KJV)
I was looking in the greek just studying the words in the Lords prayer, and this end part (For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, forever. Amen.) that I always believed to be part of the Lords prayer is not there....
Any input on that?
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stephenR Veteran Member


Joined: 05 Aug 2006 Posts: 96 Location: St Helens, Lancs, England
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Posted: Thu Feb 21, 2008 1:43 pm Post subject: |
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Most modern bibles point out that the early manuscripts do not have the phrase about the kingdom, teh power and teh glory, and that phrase is usually relegated to a footnote.
Stephen
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eternalworship New Member

Joined: 11 Feb 2008 Posts: 7
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Posted: Thu Feb 21, 2008 5:09 pm Post subject: |
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| stephenR wrote: | Most modern bibles point out that the early manuscripts do not have the phrase about the kingdom, teh power and teh glory, and that phrase is usually relegated to a footnote.
Stephen |
Thanks Stephen for your reply!
When this happens it basically means they are not sure if Jesus actually said it or if someone added it over the the years?
Jamie
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stephenR Veteran Member


Joined: 05 Aug 2006 Posts: 96 Location: St Helens, Lancs, England
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Posted: Thu Feb 21, 2008 5:54 pm Post subject: |
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yes, that is basically it. The early manuscripts do not have the phrase, the later ones do have it. Whether that means that the phrase was added at a later stage, or whether it was originally in the text that Matthew wrote, but got left out later in some manuscripts and not in others (remember these guys copied it all out longhand) is simply not known.
Stephen
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eternalworship New Member

Joined: 11 Feb 2008 Posts: 7
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Posted: Sat Mar 01, 2008 1:09 pm Post subject: |
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| stephenR wrote: | yes, that is basically it. The early manuscripts do not have the phrase, the later ones do have it. Whether that means that the phrase was added at a later stage, or whether it was originally in the text that Matthew wrote, but got left out later in some manuscripts and not in others (remember these guys copied it all out longhand) is simply not known.
Stephen |
Your probably able to read the greek new testament thoroughly I would assume. Could you or anyone somehow show me all the verses in the new testament like this? I know that 1 John 5:7 is one the kjv added and theres one in acts I know of(but forgot where, wouldn't mind a reminder), I mainly read the KJV so I would greatly appreciate if you or someone could show me all the wrong additions in it, or let me know of all the verses added that are not found in the earliest manuscripts. Would be greatly appreciative.
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stephenR Veteran Member


Joined: 05 Aug 2006 Posts: 96 Location: St Helens, Lancs, England
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Posted: Sun Mar 02, 2008 8:58 am Post subject: |
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For a start I would not be happy to call these variant readings 'wrong additions'.
This is all an exercise in Textual Criticism, which is a complicated task, and it is not really possible to pin some of these issues down to a simple 'wrong' or 'right' answer.
If you are looking for all the variant readings in the NT, (and there are several thousand of them!), the best place to look is in a modern translation, ( the NIV, NASB, NRSV or similar) where the footnotes at the bottom of the page will tell you if there is some variation in the ancient manuscripts.
Stephen
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eternalworship New Member

Joined: 11 Feb 2008 Posts: 7
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Posted: Sun Mar 02, 2008 11:01 pm Post subject: |
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| stephenR wrote: | For a start I would not be happy to call these variant readings 'wrong additions'.
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Thanks for your reply, I want to make it clear I did not mean the scriptures which were not recognized in the earliest manuscripts are "wrong additions" yet I personally find them questionable, but rather what I meant is I have heard John Piper talking about the KJV and adding things that are in no greek manuscripts at all. This is what I mean by wrong additions.
Jamie
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stephenR Veteran Member


Joined: 05 Aug 2006 Posts: 96 Location: St Helens, Lancs, England
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Posted: Mon Mar 03, 2008 3:20 am Post subject: |
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The KJV was a brilliant translation for the 1600s, but things have moved on a lot since then. More and earlier manuscripts of the NT and OT have been found, and our understanding of language and literature of the biblical settings have increased enormously.
The bottom line is that modern translations are simply better.
I know that many people have a great attachment to the language of the KJV, but the simple fact is that it is not as good a translation as the NASB or the NIV.
Stephen
PS: I do not know how long teh moderators will let this conversation run: this website is devoted to matters relating to undserstanding the NT in its original language, not really for comparing the pros and cons of other translations.
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JoshParsley Contributing Member


Joined: 13 Aug 2007 Posts: 16 Location: Fayetteville, Arkansas
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Posted: Fri Mar 07, 2008 12:41 pm Post subject: |
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Hello,
Really, you just have to study this out on your own and come to your conclusions.
Here is a link from BiblicalGreek.org that has some recommended books on the topic.
http://www.biblicalgreek.org/books/GNTs.php#criticism
PS. Old Bob may be a good story teller but if Bob didn't get his information from the right source he may have not heard the whole story. I'll leave it at that.
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