| View previous topic :: View next topic |
| Author |
Message |
bon s.
Guest
|
 Posted: Thu Jan 23, 2003 7:28 pm Post subject: double negative in John 3:36 |
 |
|
Just wondering if i'm blind or there is something I haven't got yet
- In John 3:36b, my NKJ uses a double negative, "...and he who does not believe the Son shall not see life,..." In the Greek Bible I'm only seeing one negative being used in this passage (OUK). The answer?
Thanks.[/g]
|
|
| Back to top |
|
 |
GangstahFoGawd
New Member
Joined: 23 Jan 2003
Posts: 3
Location: The Hood
|
| Posted: Thu Jan 23, 2003 9:21 pm Post subject: No your not blind... you just missed it. |
|
|
Dear bon s.,
I think the word in question here is apeithwn (pretend it's in Greek for now until I figure out how to switch fonts) which is nom. sing. masc. part. pres. of apeites (Greek, remember). The -a- on the front of the word is a negation... meaning disobedient (or here, disbelieve). So there are two neg's in that sentence.
Bon S... isn't that some kind of hotdog/sausage or something?[/g]
_________________
The GFG
|
|
| Back to top |
|
|
K Johnson
Contributing Member
Joined: 24 Aug 2002
Posts: 15
|
| Posted: Thu Jan 23, 2003 9:31 pm Post subject: Double Neg |
|
|
bon,
Nope, you aren't blind, but you may have to use your glasses to catch this one. The verb in the sentence apeiqw has an implied negative - it means to be disobedient, or in this case, to disbelieve (according to Max & Mary).
-uberschwenglich
|
|
| Back to top |
|
|
|
FAQ
Search
Memberlist
Profile
Usergroups
Calendar
REGISTER
Log in
Log in to check your private messages
